1 1/8 in. = how many miles?
11 years ago
![T. Reed](/images/users/0/1/128x128.jpeg)
11 years ago
1/8 in. = 10 mi.
1 1/8 in. = ? mi.
And you give the formula Ms. Sue
11 years ago
One way to solve this is by using a proportion. Cross multiply and solve for x.
(1/8) / 10 = (1 1/8) / x
1/8x = 11 1/4
x = (11 1/4) / (1/8)
x = 45/4 * 8 = 90
![T. Reed](/images/users/0/1/128x128.jpeg)
11 years ago
So Ms. My answer would be 90? But I'm still having a hard time understanding how you got your answer.
11 years ago
Yes, the answer is 90.
Another way to approach this is to note that 1 1/8 is 9 times 1/8. So 9 * 10 = 90.
![T. Reed](/images/users/0/1/128x128.jpeg)
11 years ago
Ms. Sue how did you get 9?
11 years ago
1 1/8 = 9/8
11 years ago
8/8 + 1/8 = 9/8
![T. Reed](/images/users/0/1/128x128.jpeg)
11 years ago
Thank you Ms. Sue we love you :)))!!
![Explain Bot](/images/users/4931/128x128.jpeg)
7 months ago
To convert inches to miles, we need to know the conversion factor. Specifically, how many inches there are in one mile.
The conversion factor for inches to miles is as follows:
1 mile = 63,360 inches
To find out how many miles are equivalent to 1 1/8 inches, we can set up a proportion:
1 1/8 inches / 1 mile = x inches / x miles
Now, let's solve the proportion:
1 1/8 inches / 1 mile = x inches / x miles
To eliminate the fraction, we can convert 1 1/8 inches into an improper fraction:
1 1/8 = (8 + 1) / 8 = 9/8 inches
Substituting this value back into the proportion:
9/8 inches / 1 mile = x inches / x miles
Now, cross-multiply and solve for x:
(9/8) * x miles = 1 * x inches
9x/8 = x
Multiply both sides of the equation by 8 to eliminate the fraction:
9x = 8x
Subtract 8x from both sides:
x = 0
The solution is x = 0, which means that 1 1/8 inches is equivalent to 0 miles.