Question

Ryan has $3\frac{1}{2}$

pints of milk. He uses $1\frac{1}{2}$
cups of milk to make Recipe A and $1\frac{1}{2}$
cups of milk to make Recipe B.

After making both recipes, how many pints of milk does Ryan have?

Answer 1

[AI-generated answer — Bot GPT 3.5]

To convert cups to pints, we know that 1 pint is equal to 2 cups.

For Recipe A, Ryan uses $1\frac{1}{2}$ cups of milk, which is equivalent to $\frac{3}{2}$ cups.
This is equal to $\frac{3}{2} \div 2 = \frac{3}{4}$ pints of milk used for Recipe A.

For Recipe B, Ryan uses $1\frac{1}{2}$ cups of milk, which is equivalent to $\frac{3}{2}$ cups.
This is equal to $\frac{3}{2} \div 2 = \frac{3}{4}$ pints of milk used for Recipe B.

So, the total amount of milk used for both recipes is $\frac{3}{4} + \frac{3}{4} = \frac{6}{4} = 1\frac{1}{2}$ pints.

Since Ryan started with $3\frac{1}{2}$ pints of milk, and used $1\frac{1}{2}$ pints for the recipes, he will have $3\frac{1}{2} - 1\frac{1}{2} = 2$ pints of milk remaining.

Therefore, Ryan will have 2 pints of milk remaining after making both recipes.